I was wondering if its allowed to multiply two mean values. I thought of the following:
$$y = x_1 * x_2$$
They values $x_1$ and $x_2$ are from different sample sets and are not related. They only have to same number of samples in them.
I think its wrong to calculate $\bar{y}$ like this:
$$\bar{y}=\bar{x_1}*\bar{x_2} $$
Because:
$$
\bar{y} = \frac{1}{n}\sum x_{1i} * \frac{1}{n}\sum x_{2i} = \frac{1}{n^2}\sum x_{1i}x_{2i}
$$
Am I right ?
or does it resolve to this and it is allowed? $$ \bar{y} = \frac{1}{n}\sum x_{1i} * \frac{1}{n}\sum x_{2i} = \frac{1}{n}\sum x_{1i}x_{2i} $$
$$\sum x_{1i} \times \sum x_{2i} \neq \sum x_{1i}x_{2i}$$
As a simple example, consider
$$(1 + 2 + 3) \times (4 + 5 + 6) \neq 1\cdot4 + 2\cdot 5 + 3 \cdot 6$$