Let $R$ be a ring, and $M$ an $R$-module. The tensor product $(M \otimes_R -)$ is a covariant functor from $R$-Mod to Ab (abelian groups).
Suppose that $F$ is a functor from $R$-Mod to Ab, which given an R-module $N$, associates a map $\phi_F^N$ along with $F(N)$, such that for all $N$, the pair $(F(N),\phi_F^N)$ also satisfies the universal property of the tensor product.
This means that $F(N)$ and $(M \otimes_R N)$ are isomorphic by a unique isomorphism.
What I’m wondering is if these isomorphisms are necessarily natural in $N$ (are the functors $(M \otimes_R -)$ and $F$ naturally isomorphic)?
I would guess not, and if so, is there a alternative category or alternative universal property that I can use and show if $F$ satisfies it, then I can conclude that these 2 functors are naturally isomorphic? Maybe a category of pairs $(A, \phi)$ of abelian groups and maps $\phi$ and some universal property in this category?
Please let me know if anything is not clear, and I am fairly new to all this so sorry if this is obvious!
Thanks in advance :)
This is not literally true as stated. For instance, suppose $F(N)=M\otimes N$ and $\phi^N_F:M\times N\to F(N)=M\otimes N$ is the usual balanced map for all $N$ except for one particular module $N_0$, and for $N_0$ it is instead the negative of the usual balanced map (which will still satisfy the same universal property). Then the isomorphism $M\otimes N\to F(N)$ obtained from $\phi^N_F$ will be the identity map for all $N$ except $N_0$, but for $N_0$ it will be the negative of the identity map. Assuming $M\otimes N_0$ is not $2$-torsion (so the negative identity is different from the identity), then these isomorphisms will not form a natural transformation (in particular, if $N_1$ is any module that is isomorphic but not equal to $N_0$, then the isomorphisms will not be natural with respect to any isomorphism $N_1\to N_0$).
In that particular example, $F$ happens to be naturally isomorphic to $M\otimes -$, just not via the isomorphisms given by $\phi^N_F$. I suspect you can also find an example where $F$ is not even naturally isomorphic to $M\otimes -$ at all, but I don't know such an example off the top of my head. For an almost-example, if you consider the functor $\mathbb{Z}/(2)\otimes -$ on the category of finite $\mathbb{Z}$-modules (rather than all $\mathbb{Z}$-modules), then it is objectwise isomorphic to the functor $F(N)=\operatorname{Tor}(\mathbb{Z}/(2),N)$, but not naturally isomorphic.
However, it is true if you make the additional assumption that the maps $\phi_F^N$ are natural in $N$ (that is, they form a natural transformation between the functors $M\times -$ and $U\circ F$ from $R\mathtt{-Mod}$ to $\mathtt{Set}$ where $U$ is the forgetful functor from $\mathtt{Ab}$ to $\mathtt{Set}$). You can find a high-level explanation for this in user54748's answer; here's a more hands-on verification. Let $\alpha_N:M\otimes N\to F(N)$ be the isomorphism induced by $\phi^F_N$, and suppose $f:N\to N'$ is a homomorphism. We wish to show that $$F(f)\circ\alpha_N=\alpha_{N'}\circ (M\otimes f).$$ To prove these homomorphisms $M\otimes N\to F(N')$ are equal, we can show they are equal on elements of the form $m\otimes n$. Note that by definition, $\alpha_N(m\otimes n)=\phi^N_F(m,n)$ for all $m\in M$ and $n\in N$. So, $$(F(f)\circ\alpha_N)(m\otimes n)=F(f)(\phi^N_F(m,n))$$ and $$\alpha_{N'}\circ (M\otimes f)(m\otimes n)=\phi^{N'}_F(m,f(n)).$$ But $$F(f)(\phi^N_F(m,n))=\phi^{N'}_F(m,f(n))$$ is exactly what it means for $\phi_F$ to be natural with respect to $f$, and so they are indeed equal.