Target: Prove $⊢ (A → B) ∨ (B → C)$ without using LEM.
I may be way off here, but is it valid to solve the above with the following or-elimination pattern:
Answer: No, it is not possible to prove without LEM.
1 A → B (assumption)
2 A (assumption)
3 B (implication elimination 1,2)
4 (A → B) ∨ (B → C) (or-introduction 1 1)
...
9 (A → B) ∨ (B → C) (or-elimination 1-4, ...)
You cannot prove this without the law of the excluded middle, since the law of the excluded middle follows from this statement. Just instantiate $A$ with True and $C$ with False and you get $B \lor \lnot B$.
With the law of the excluded middle, you can prove it by case distinction on $B \lor \lnot B$. From $B$ you derive $A \to B$ and from $\lnot B$ you derive $B \to C$, so in both cases you have $(A \to B) \lor (B \to C)$.
In your reasoning, you're never discharging assumptions 1 and 5, so you're effectively proving $A \to B \vdash (A \to B) \lor (B \to C)$ and $B \to C \vdash (A \to B) \lor (B \to C)$.
After the edit, which added line 9, the question looks more like a complex and incomplete way of deriving $(A \to B) \lor (B \to C) \vdash (A \to B) \lor (B \to C)$; that also doesn't get you anywhere.