I came across an interesting result appearing as an exercise in some lecture notes I'm reading. Suppose $X_{1},X_{2},...$ are IID $N\left(0,1\right)$ RVs all defined on $\left(\Omega,\mathcal{F},\mathbb{P}\right)$ and let $S_{n}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_{i}$ . Then with probability 1 (w.r.t to $\mathbb{P}$ ) the sequence $\frac{S_{n}\left(\omega\right)}{\sqrt{n}}$ is dense in $\mathbb{R}$ . That is, with probability 1 for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ there is a subsequence $\frac{S_{n_{k}}}{\sqrt{n_{k}}}$ converging pointwise to $x$.
I'm curious about what kind of proof approach would be appropriate here. If some cares to reference or write a proof that would be great.
In fact we don't even have to assume that the $X_i$ are normally distributed. Just assume they have mean zero and variance $1$.
Fix some $a<b \in \Bbb R$. By reverse Fatou's Lemma we see that $$P\big( \frac{S_n}{\sqrt{n}} \in [a,b] \;\;\text{ for infinitely many $n$ } \big) \geq \limsup_{n \to \infty} P\big(\frac{S_n}{\sqrt{n}} \in [a,b] \big) = P\big(Z \in [a,b] \big)>0$$ where $Z$ is normally distributed, and the equality after the limsup follows by the central limit theorem. On the other hand, note that the event $E_{a,b} :=\big\{ \frac{S_n}{\sqrt{n}} \in [a,b] \;\;\text{ for infinitely many $n$ } \big\}$ is an exchangeable event and therefore the Hewitt-Savege 0-1 Law together with the above computation implies that $P(E_{a,b})=1$.
Finally, note that $$P\big( \{ S_n/\sqrt{n}: n\in \Bbb N\} \text{ is dense in } \Bbb R \big) = P \bigg( \bigcap_{\substack{a<b \\ a,b \in \Bbb Q}} E_{a,b} \bigg) = 1$$