This may be a simple doubt. As far as I know, when we say $K$ is a subfield of $L$, we mean that $K$ can be embedded in $L$ (through the embedding say $\phi$). Then, when I say, 'let $\alpha$ be in $L$ but not in $K$', I mean, $\alpha$ is not in the image of $\phi$.
Firstly, is it what the general understanding? Secondly, doesn't then the non-belongingness of $\alpha$ in $K$ depend on the embedding we choose? Can we have more than one injective maps from $K$ to $L$ in any circumstance? If so, why are we not stressing on the embedding we choose in the given situation of extensions?
For instance, suppose we consider the polynomial $p(x)=x^3-2$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. Let $\mathbb{Q}(a), \mathbb{Q}(b)$ and $\mathbb{Q}(c)$ be the three extensions obtained by adjoining the three roots $a(=\sqrt[3]{2}), b$ and $c$ of $p(x)$. Now, can't I embed $\mathbb{Q}(b)$ in $\mathbb{C}$ in two different ways? Firstly, we can directly treat $\mathbb{Q}(b)$ a subfield of $\mathbb{C}$ through the usual embedding. Secondly, I can treat $\mathbb{Q}(b)$ isomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}(a)$ and then I would get a different embedding. Now in the first embedding I see that $b$ is in the image space while in the second it is not.
Am I thinking in right direction?
People play fast and loose with this terminology, but strictly speaking, no, this is not what this means. "$K$ is a subfield of $L$" means that $K$ is a subset of $L$ which is closed under the field operations. This is equivalent to saying that we have fixed an embedding of $K$ into $L$ but the point of insisting on $K$ being a literal subset is that it's totally unambiguous what it means for an element of $L$ to not be in $K$.
It would in general, but we've fixed it.
People are sometimes sloppy about this sort of thing, but one reason it's possible to get away with this is the following:
In this case, despite the fact that there are multiple embeddings, the meaning of "an element of $L$ not in $K$" is still unambiguous. For example there are two embeddings $\mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2 + 1) \to \mathbb{C}$ but they have the same image, namely the subfield $\mathbb{Q}(i)$ generated by $i$ (or $-i$). Your example of $\mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^3 - 2)$ is ambiguous because it's not Galois.