The following is the definition of integral scheme as mentioned here
Let $X$ be a scheme. We say $X$ is integral if it is nonempty and for every nonempty affine open $\operatorname{Spec}(R)=U \subset X$ the ring $R$ is an integral domain.
How do I show that for any open set $U$, $\mathcal{O}_X(U)$ is an integral domain?
First, $X$ is irreducible: if not, then I could find two nonempty disjoint affine opens and the coordinate ring of their union would not be a domain. For all affine open $U \subseteq X$, then, $\mathscr O(U)$ injects into its localization $R(X)$, the function field of $X$. Hence the same is true for arbitrary open $U$.