Consider the system of intuitionistic implicational logic together with the axiom schema adding all instances of
$$(p\rightarrow q)\vee(q\rightarrow r)$$
Does that make Peirce's law true?
I have already show that Peirce's law implies the above schema. Thank you for any hint of the other direction.
Yes, this will imply Peirce's Law. One way to see this is to notice that $(p \to q) \lor (q \to r)$ is equivalent to the law of excluded middle which itself is maybe better known to imply Peirce's Law. For completeness, here is a direct proof using this idea:
We need to show $((a \to b) \to a) \to a$. By the assumption $(p \to q) \lor (q \to r)$ we know that $(\top \to a) \lor (a \to \bot)$, so we get two cases:
If $\top \to a$ this means we have $a$ and therefore we can easily show $((a \to b) \to a) \to a$. (Since we can show $c \to a$ for any $c$)
If $a \to \bot $ i.e. $\neg \, a$ we first note that we can show $(a \to b)$, since if we have $a$ it combines with $\neg \, a$ to give us $\bot$ and so we get $b$ by explosion. Now it is clear that we also get $((a \to b) \to a) \to a$, since if we assume $H : (a \to b) \to a$ we can get $a$, because we already have $(a \to b)$.