Suppose we have real parametric equations defined by:
$y = f(t),\quad x = g(t).$
The book I am using says that:
At a point where the tangent is parallel to the x-axis, $\large{\frac{dy}{dt}}=0.$
At a point where the tangent is parallel to the y-axis, $\large{\frac{dx}{dt}}=0.$
This makes sense to me. But then the book says that the converse is not true:
For example, $\ \frac{dy}{dt}=0\ \nRightarrow\ $ the tangent is parallel to the x-axis.
This says that, loosely speaking, for a function where a small change in $t$ causes almost no change in $y$, the tangent is not necessarily parallel to the x-axis.
But I can't think of a counterexample. Is there an example where the implication does not hold?
Imagine a system like $x=\sin(t)$ and $y=\sin(t)$. $\frac{dy}{dt}=0$ when $t=\frac\pi2$, but the graph of the system has a slope of 1 everywhere that the slope is defined.