If $∀x∃y P(x, y)$ is true, can the following be true?
- $∀x∀yP(x, y)$ or
- $∃x∀yP(x, y)$ or
- $∃x∃yP(x, y) $
I understand the order of $X$ and $Y$ matters when the quantifiers are different but can the quantifier rather than the variable change, and can a 'there exists' be upgraded to a 'for all' or vice versa as in the first and third question?
Of course, all three statements can be true given the truth of the given statement. If we consider a domain with a single object that stands in relation $P$ to itself, then all four statement are true.
... this seems too obvious ... are you sure you phrased that question correctly? Shouldn't you be asking which other statements must be true given the truth of the given statement? Indeed, that is a more typical question for logic ...
So, let's change the can into must ... or, what is the same thing,let's ask which, if any, of the three statements logically follows from the given statement.
To that, the answer is only statement 3 ... and that is assuming (as most standard logics do), that the domain cannot be empty. Indeed, if the domain is not empty, then any universal statement implies its existential counterpart, i.e. $\forall x \ \varphi(x)$ implies $\exists x \ \varphi(x)$, and therefore $\forall x \ \exists y \ P(x,y)$ implies $\exists x \ \exists y \ P(x,y)$ as a specific instance of that. However, an existential statement does not imply its universal counterpart (i.e. an existential cannot be 'upgraded' to a universal)