Probability a card can win a trick with a trump suit

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I'm working on the AI for a card game that uses a standard deck of 52 cards consisting of 13 cards in 4 (spades, clubs, diamonds, hearts) suits.

Each player starts with 13 cards in their hand. When a trick is started, a player must follow suit if they can, otherwise they can play any card.

I'd like to calculate the probability that a given card in my hand is a winner if I start a trick.

To do so, I'm using the following formula:

t = number of unknown cards in play
c = cards in the opponent's hand
n = number of "key" cards

$$ P_i = \frac{(t - c)! (t - n)!}{t! (t - c - n)!} $$


If I want to play the king of clubs, only the ace of clubs can beat me, so the probability that the king can win is:

$$ P_1 = \frac{(39 - 13)!(39 - 1)!}{39!(39 - 13 - 1)!} = 0.667 $$

This result seems to make sense because the opponent only has 1/3 of the remaining deck.

Next, I'd like to determine the probability that the opponent does not have any clubs and can play a trump. I calculate the probability that the opponent has any club. Let's say I have four clubs in my hand and the opponent does not have the ace of clubs (five clubs total):

$$ P_2 = \frac{(39 - 13)!(39 - 8)!}{39!(39 - 13 - 8)!} = 0.025 $$

So, the opponent has about a 3% chance of not holding a club. Finally, I calculate the probability that my opponent is holding any trump. Let's assume I'm holding four trump cards:

$$ P_3 = 1 - \frac{(39 - 13)!(39 - 9)}{39!(39 - 13 - 9)!} = 0.985 $$

I'd like to say:

$$ P(win) = P_1 + (P_2 * P_3) $$

This would yield about a 69.1% chance to win.

But, I don't believe these probabilities are independent because I've encountered some scenarios where the final result sometimes falls outside the range of [0, 1].

What's the correct way to account for the chance that an opponent does not have a particular suit and can play trump to win the trick so I can accurately calculate the chance a given card is a winner?

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For the sake of definiteness, let's say you want to play clubs; there are $k$ clubs you don't have above the one you want to play, $l$ clubs you don't have below it, and $m$ trumps you don't have.

It's the losing events, not the winning events, that are disjoint.

One of two losing events is that your opponent has a higher club, with probability

$$ 1-\frac{\binom{39-k}{13}}{\binom{39}{13}}=1-\frac{(39-k)!26!}{(26-k)!39!}\;, $$

as you correctly calculated. The second, disjoint losing event is that your opponent has no clubs but has a trump. To calculate the probability for this, we need the probabilities that she has no clubs and that she has neither clubs nor trump. The probability that she has no clubs is

$$ \frac{\binom{39-k-l}{13}}{\binom{39}{13}}=\frac{(39-k-l)!26!}{(26-k-l)!39!}\;. $$

The probability that she has neither clubs nor trumps is

$$ \frac{\binom{39-k-l-m}{13}}{\binom{39}{13}}=\frac{(39-k-l-m)!26!}{(26-k-l-m)!39!}\;. $$

The probability that she has no clubs but has trump is the difference between the two. Thus, the overall probability you're looking for is

$$ 1-\frac{(39-k)!26!}{(26-k)!39!}+\frac{(39-k-l)!26!}{(26-k-l)!39!}-\frac{(39-k-l-m)!26!}{(26-k-l-m)!39!}\\ =1-\frac{26!}{39!}\left(\frac{(39-k)!}{(26-k)!}+\frac{(39-k-l)!}{(26-k-l)!}-\frac{(39-k-l-m)!}{(26-k-l-m)!}\right)\;. $$