Sorry if this is a stupid question. I couldn't see anything else quite the same as this, although I found some similar questions. Please remove this if it is a duplicate. (I hardly understand sets so please take the spirit of the question into account and give me ways to phrase it better. Thank you!)
Note: I am assuming a uniform distribution. (If you can even do that for an uncountably infinite set.)
Note 2: I have realized that this problem doesn't work, as I cannot assign a uniform distribution to an uncountable infinite set. If anyone knows a way to somehow bypass this, please comment. Thank you!
Note 3: Someone told me the exact opposite thing that the earlier person said, so I now have no idea what is true or not.
Note 4: I have come to the conclusion that you $can$, in fact, assign a uniform distribution to an uncountably infinite set, and the method of picking the random number doesn't matter since this is a theoretical exercise. Thank you.
My question is essentially this: If you had the set $S$, $[0,1] \cup \Bbb Z$, and you randomly picked a number from the set, is it more likely for the selected number to be in between $0$ and $1$ or an integer $\Bbb Z$? I feel like it's logical that the number should be more likely to be in between $1$ and $0$, as there are infinitely many more numbers in between $1$ and $0$ than all integers $\Bbb Z$, but I also know that technically the probability of selecting any number at all is $0$. Would it just be an equal probability of $0$, or would it be a $100%$ chance of something in $[0,1]$ being selected? Or would it be something else? Thank you!
Thank you!
Edit 1: Clarified the set more, and changed it from strictly negative $\Bbb I$ into a general $\Bbb I$.
Edit 2: Added Note 2.
Edit 3: Added Note 3.
Edit 4: Question has been properly cleaned up, Note 4 has been added.
If your space of probability is $\bar{\mathbb{R}}$ with Borel's $\sigma$-algebra, I'd say that you do have a grater chance of picking a positive number: $-\mathbb{Z}$ is a nullset while $[0,1]$ is not. How ever, I am no Probability Theory expert and you should probably listen to someone who knows better than I do, but I reckon that having a nullset and a set of positive measure is key to this.