Important Pre-Requisite Knowledge
On the image board 4chan, every time you post your post gets a 9 digit post ID. An example of this post ID would be $586794945$. A Quad is a post ID which ends with 4 consecutive identical numbers. For example 586794444 and 586796666 is a Quad. A trip is a post ID which ends with 3 identical numbers. For example 586794333 or 586794555 are both trips.
My Question
a) What is the probability of receiving a trips post ID
b) What is the probability of receiving a quads post ID
c) How many posts are necessary (assuming each new post receives a new ID) for 3 trips to show up
These are questions I came up with while on the site and I'm looking to see if my answer is correct. I'm pretty sure I know part a,b. I'm having difficulty with part c though, looking for a way to solve that.
My Work
Part A
Our sample space is all possible posting IDs. Therefore $|S| = 10^{9}$
To calculate our $|E|$ we need to know all possible trips. We first pick our three ending letters (10 ways to do this). Then the $4^{th}$ to last digit must be different from the last 3 so we select it in 9 ways. We then have $10^5$ ways to select the starting 5 digits. Therefore, we have $10*9*10^5$ ways to select trips. Therefore, the probability of selecting a trips is $\frac{10*9*10^5}{10^{9}}$ = .009
Part B
Similar process to part A. We have the same sample space. 10 ways to select the quads. 9 ways to select the $5^{th}$ to last digit, and finally $10^4$ ways to select the remaining 4 digits. Therefore probability of $\frac{10*9*10^4}{10^9}$ = .0009
Part C
Don't really know where to begin. I'm thinking maybe there are $10*9*10^5$ possible trips and $10^9$ total IDs so maybe we have to post $10*9*10^5 - 10^9$ to ensure we get a trips.
A simpler way to answer a and b is to just ignore the rest of the string and consider the final n+1 digits (assuming post numbers in a given thread are effectively random (and thus independent) which for predictive purposes while looking in one thread they are). A. Calling last digits q, r, s, t we have R =/= q: .9 S=q: .1 T = q&s: .1 Multiply ??? Profit B is similar C. Has no finite answer. For any number N there is SOME calculable probability that trips does not occur. Thus for no N can the odds of trips (1- p(no trips)) can never be 1. Analagously, how many times do you have to flip a coin to GUARANTEE heads? Pro tip: you can't.