Hi guys I'm new to topology and was asked to prove the following, of which I am having troubles with:
Let $F:X \times I \rightarrow Y$ be a continous function. For each $t \in I$ let $f_{t} = F(x,t)$. Prove that $f_{t}$ is continuous.
My attempt is as follows:
Let us first fix a $t_{0} \in I$ and let $\{V_{i}\}$ be a collection of open subsets in $Y$ that contains $F(x,t_{0})$. Since $\{V_{i}\}$ are open then this means that the intersection of which is also open, namely $\cap_{i}V_{i}$ is.
Now we use continuity of $F$ and see that $F^{-1}(\cap_{i}V_{i})$ must be a open set in the topology of $X \times I$. But this topology is generated by the basis whose sets are the of form $U_{X} \times U_{I}$, where $U_{X}$ and $U_{I}$ are open sets in the topologies of $X$ and $I$ respectively.
Then $F^{-1}(\cap_{i}V_{i})$ must be of the same form, i.e. $F^{-1}(\cap_{i}V_{i}) = U_{X_1} \times U_{I_1}$ where $U_{X_1}$ and $U_{T_1}$ are open sets in $X$ and $I$ respectively. But notice that $U_{I_1} = {t_0}$. Then $U_{X_1} \times U_{I_1} = U_{X_1} \times {t_0}$.
Hence for a fixed $t_0 \in I$, $F^{-1}(\cap_{i}V_{i}) = U_{X} \times {t_0}$ and in the case of f, $f_{t_0}^{-1}(\cap_{i}V_{i}) = U_{X}$. Therefore the preimage of open sets under $f$ is open.
I'm sorry guys reading over this I can definitely see some errors. Can anyone provide any tips? I'm very confused on this question. Any feedback will be greatly appreciated!
A function $g:A\to B$ is continuous if for every open subset $V\subset B$ we have $f^{-1}(V)$ is open.
Fix $t_0\in I$ and consider $f_{t_0}:X\to Y$ defined by $f_{t_0}(x)=F(x,t_0)$. Now take some open subset $V\subset Y$. Since $F$ is continuous on $X\times I$, we have that $F^{-1}(V)$ is an open subset of $X\times I$, and so $F^{-1}(V)\cap(X\times\{t_0\})$ is an open subset in the relative topology of $X\times\{t_0\}$. We'll show that $f_{t_0}^{-1}(V)=\pi_1\big(F^{-1}(V)\cap(X\times\{t_0\})\big)$, where $\pi_1$ is the projection on the first component. Once we have shown this, we'll know that $f_{t_0}^{-1}(V)$ is open, since $\pi_1$ is an open map (it maps open sets to open sets).
$x\in f_{t_0}^{-1}(V)\Leftrightarrow f_{t_0}(x)=F(x,t_0)\in V\Leftrightarrow (x,t_0)\in F^{-1}(V)\Leftrightarrow (x,t_0)\in F^{-1}(V)\cap(X\times\{t_0\})\Leftrightarrow x\in\pi_1\big(F^{-1}(V)\cap(X\times\{t_0\})\big)$
Therefore $f_{t_0}^{-1}(V)=\pi_1\big(F^{-1}(V)\cap(X\times\{t_0\})\big)$, so $f_{t_0}^{-1}(V)$ is open, and we conclude $f_{t_0}$ is continuous.