I just started learning inductive proofs but I am stuck trying to proof that the following equation applies for all $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$. \begin{align} n!&=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}{\left[\left(\frac{i+1}{i}\right)^n\frac{i}{n+i}\right]} \end{align}
I already showed the base case \begin{align} 0!=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}{\left[\left(\frac{i+1}{i}\right)^0\frac{i}{i}\right]}=1 \end{align} and thus we can assume \begin{align} k!=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}{\left[\left(\frac{i+1}{i}\right)^k\frac{i}{k+i}\right]} \end{align} But I am having issues with the inductive step $k\to k+1$. \begin{align} (k+1)!&=(k+1)k!\\ &=(k+1)\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}{\left[\left(\frac{i+1}{i}\right)^k\frac{i}{k+i}\right]}\\ &=\cdots \end{align} I do not know how to continue with this. Is it possible to move $(k+1)$ inside the product? Can anyone please help me with this problem. Thanks in advance!
First off, you cannot move $k+1$ inside the product; consider $2 \cdot \prod_{i=1}^{3} i=2 (1) (2) (3)= 12$. This is not equivalent to $\prod_{i=1}^{3} (2i) = (2) (4) (6) = 48$.
Also, the inductive step works a bit differently. In this case, we want to prove that $\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^{k+1} \frac{i}{(k+1)+i} = (k+1) \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^{k} \frac{i}{k+i}$. This is equivalent to showing that we can manipulate $(k+1) k!$(right side) into $(k+1)!$(left side. If we can do that, we have achieved the definition of the factorial.
We can start by splitting the product: we get
$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^{k+1} \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{i}{(k+1)+i} = (k+1) \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^{k} \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{i}{k+i}$
Now, noting that the left and right hand sides are extremely similar, we consider dividing both sides by the products on the right.
$\frac{\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^{k+1} \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{i}{(k+1)+i}}{\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^{k} \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{i}{k+i}} = k+1$
While this looks ugly, we notice that we can combine the similar products. Consider $\frac{\prod_{i=1}^{3} i}{\prod_{i=1}^{3} 2i}=\frac{(1) (2) (3)}{(2) (4) (6)} = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \prod_{i=1}^{3} \frac{i}{2i}$. Doing this, we have:
$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{i+1}{i} \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{k+i}{k+1+i} = k+1$
$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{(i+1) (k+i)}{i(k+1+i)} = k+1$
$\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (1 + \frac{k}{i(k+i+1)}) = k+1$
To find the product on the left, we claim that the partial products $\prod_{i=1}^{m} (1 + \frac{k}{i(k+i+1)})$ are equal to $\frac{(k+1)(m+1)}{k+m+1}$. This is very easy to prove through induction and is left as an exercise. (EDIT: You need not use partial products, the product trivially telescopes as shown in another answer).
Now, we just need to take the limit as $m$ goes to infinity. This will give us
$\lim_{m \to \infty} \frac{(k+1)(m+1)}{k+m+1} =$
$(k+1) \lim_{m \to \infty} \frac{m+1}{k+m+1} =$
$(k+1) \cdot 1 =$
$k+1$
And hence the inductive step is true, and hence $n! =\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} (\frac{i+1}{i})^k \frac{i}{n+i}$ for all integer $n$.
Sidenote: I tried to find a partial product formula for the original product, but could not.