I just wanted to know if my proof by induction of this statement $E(X_{n\geq m}|F_m)=X_m$ for a martingal is correct?
initialisation: $E(X_{n+1}|F_n)=X_n$ by def of a martingale
assumption: $\forall k \in \mathbb{N},E(X_{n+k}|F_n)=X_n$
step: As $F_n\subseteq F_{n+k}$ so $E(X_{n+k+1}|F_n)=E(E(X_{n+k+1}|F_{n+k})|F_n)=E(X_{n+k}|F_n)=X_n$
More precisally using this justification:
-$E(X_{n+k+1}|F_{n+k})=X_{n+k}$ by definition of a martingale
-$E(X_{n+k}|F_n)=X_n$ by assumption
Q.E.D
Is it correct?
The proof is correct.