I'm having trouble with a proof, with the case $n>2$.
THEOREM: For every natural number $n∈N$ where $n≠2$, $∑_{i=1}^ni≤n!$
Let us simplify the statement.
$$\begin{alignat*}{2}\frac{n(n+1)}{2}&≤n!\\ \frac{ \frac{n(n+1)}{2} }{n}&≤\frac{n!}{n}\\ \frac{n+1}{2}&≤(n-1)!\\ \frac{ \frac{n+1}{2} }{n+1}&≤\frac{(n-1)!}{n+1}\\ \frac{1}{2}&≤\frac{(n-1)!}{n+1}\end{alignat*}$$
Case $n=1$:$\ldots$
Case $n=2$:$\ldots$
Case $n>2$:
To represent a natural number n>2, one can take another natural number $k$ and add two to it. Then: $$\frac{1}{2}≤\frac{(k+1)!}{(k+3)}$$
$\ldots?$
Now, I'm stuck for the last case. I have no idea where to go from there. Any hints?
The case $n=1$ is just $1\le 1$. The case $n=2$ is excluded from the theorem, for $n=3$ we get $6\le 6$.
Now proceed by induction: Assuming $n>2$: $$\sum_{i=1}^{n+1} i = \sum_{i=1}^n i + n + 1 \le n! + n + 1 \stackrel{(\ast)}\le n! (n+1) = (n+1)!$$ In $(\ast)$ we used that $n>2$ so $n+1\le n\cdot n!$ and thus $n! + n+1 \le (n+1)!$