I can't get to get a good proof of this, any help?
What I thought was:
$$b^n = a^nk$$ then, by the Fundamental theorem of arithmetic, decompose $b$ such:
$$b=p_1^{q_1}p_2^{q_2}...p_m^{q_m}$$
with $p_1...p_m$ primes and $q_1...q_n$ integers.
then
$$b^n=(p_1^{q_1}p_2^{q_2}...p_m^{q_m})^n= p_1^{q_1n}p_2^{q_2n}...p_m^{q_mn}$$
but here i get stucked, and i can't seem to find a good satisfactory way to associate $a$ and $b$...
Any help will be appreciated
Note: I am making one assumption you did not state. I assume $n \in \{1, 2, ... \}$.
Without loss of generality, let $ a = p_1^{\alpha_1} p_2 ^{\alpha_2} ... p_m^{\alpha_m}$ and $b = p_1^{\beta_1} p_2 ^{\beta_2} ... p_m^{\beta_m}.$ Note this means that some $\alpha_k, \beta_k, k \in \{1, 2, ... m\}$ may be zero. Now assume $a^n | b^n$. Then,
$a^n = p_1^{n \alpha_1} ... p_m^{ n \alpha_m}$ and $b^n = p_1^{n \alpha_1} ... p_m^{n \alpha_m}$ are such that $n \alpha_k \le n \beta_k, \forall k \in \{1, ... , m\}$ (because $a^n$ divides $b^n$). This is true if and only if $\alpha_k \le \beta_k \forall k \in \{1, 2, ... , m\}$ (because $n > 0$). However, this is true if and only if $a | b$.