For another proof I just assumed, that $n! < m! \;$ for all $\;n<m$. And I mean it is kind of obvious that this is the case, but then again I should be able to prove it. However I have no idea where to start there. Can someone give me a hint (or the solution)? Thanks in advance!
2026-04-01 18:56:13.1775069773
Proof, that $n! < m!$ when $n<m$
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If $n<m$, $$n!=1\times2\times...\times(n-1)\times n\qquad\qquad\text{and,}$$ $$m!=\underbrace{1\times2\times...\times (n-1)\times n}_{n!}\times (n+1)\times...\times(m-1)\times m\\=n!\times(n+1)\times...\times(m-1)\times m.$$
Hence,$$\frac{m!}{n!}=(n+1)\times...\times(m-1)\times m>1\Rightarrow m!>n!$$ since, $m>n\ge1\Rightarrow(n+1),...,(m-1)>1$.