Prove that if $K_1$ and $K_2$ are positive definite $n × n$ matrices, then $$K = \begin{pmatrix}K_1& 0\\ 0 &K2\end{pmatrix}$$ is a positive definite $2n × 2n$ matrix. Is the converse true?
I know that since $K_1, K_2$ are both SPD, then they're non-singular and regular, so $K$ should be composed of linearly independent columns which implies that it is SPD.
I'm having trouble writing it formally.
It's not true that any matrix composed of linearly independent columns is symmetric and positive definite. Just consider $\begin{pmatrix} 1&0\\1&1\end{pmatrix}$. Instead, observe that $K$ is symmetric because $K^T=\begin{pmatrix} K^T_1&0\\0&K^T_2\end{pmatrix}=K$. And for positivity, if $x=(x_1,x_2)$ where the $x_i$ are of length $n$, then $x^TKx=x^T\begin{pmatrix} K_1x_1\\K_2x_2\end{pmatrix}=x_1^TK_1x_1+x_2^TK_2x_2>0$.