I need to proof association based on the formula below and I don't know how to even start
\begin{align} &(p\lor q) \lor r \vdash p \lor (q \lor r) \\ \end{align}
I feel like banging my head against a wall because it should be easy and looks obvious but I simply can't work it out right now and haven't found that example explained in hours of googling
I am not an expert in formal logic at all. I am not sure what you are allowed to assume. But if you are allowed to already assume 1) associativity with "and", and 2) that a statement always implies its contrapositive, then start with the consequent, and ...
$ \neg(p\vee (q\vee r)) \vdash \neg p \wedge \neg (q \vee r) \vdash \neg p \wedge (\neg q \wedge \neg r) \vdash ( \neg p \wedge \neg q) \wedge \neg r \vdash \neg(p \vee q)\wedge \neg r \vdash \neg((p\vee q) \vee r) $
So
$ \neg(p\vee (q\vee r)) \vdash \neg((p\vee q) \vee r) $
But
$ \neg a \vdash \neg b$ is always equivalent to $b \vdash a$, so
$ (p\vee q) \vee r \vdash p\vee (q\vee r) $