I'm trying to prove the following for my analysis course:
Let $\;m=\sup\left\{s_n \mid n\ge 1\right\}\lt \infty\;$ and suppose that the supremum is not attained. Prove that $\,\limsup\limits _{n\to\infty} s_n=m$.
To me it seems as if I have to prove that the lim sup is equal to the sup, but I don't have a clue where to start.
Can anybody guide me in the right direction, please?
Let $S\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ be a set that is bounded above.
Then evidently for any $s\in\mathbb{R}$ the set $S-\left\{ s\right\} $ is bounded above with $\sup\left(S-\left\{ s\right\} \right)\leq\sup S$.
If $s<\sup S$ then some $t\in S$ exists with $s<t$ so that $\sup\left(S-\left\{ s\right\} \right)$ serves as upperbound for $S$ and consequently we also have $\sup\left(S-\left\{ s\right\} \right)\geq\sup S$.
So acually: $$s<\sup S\implies\sup\left(S-\left\{ s\right\} \right)=\sup S$$
This is the ground of $a_n=a_{n+1}$ below.
Define $a_{n}:=\sup\left\{ s_{k}\mid k\geq n\right\} $.
Then by definition $a_{1}=\sup\left\{ s_{k}\mid k\geq1\right\} $ and $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_{n}=\limsup\ s_{n}$.
Also it is evident that $a_{n}\geq a_{n+1}$ for each $n$.
However the fact that the supremum is not attained takes care of $a_{n}=a_{n+1}$ for each $n$.
Then $a_1=\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n$.