Given that the if and only if defines as being equivalent to $[ p \rightarrow q]\land [q\rightarrow p]$, how to prove it is equivalent to $[ p \lor q]\rightarrow [p\land q]$, I'm new to the logic stuffs, and I feel pretty struggle on it. Need help
2026-03-31 18:47:30.1774982850
prove if and only if logic equivalent to ($P\lor Q) \rightarrow (P\land Q $)(using the laws without truth table)
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You can expand using $[r\implies s] \equiv [s\ \lor \sim r]$.