Another question from my 11th grade Mathematics textbook. I actually proved it but I still want to confirm if it's right or not. Please check it out :
In order to prove that A-B=A ⇔ A⋂B=Φ, we will first prove that A-B=A ⇒ A⋂B=Φ and then we'll prove
that A⋂B=Φ ⇒ A-B=A
First part : Proving that A-B=A ⇒ A⋂B=Φ :-
Let x be an arbitrary element of A
So, x ∈ A
Since A=A-B, so x ∈ A-B
So, x ∈ A and x ∉ B
This means that for an arbitrary element of A, it is not an element of B
So, A and B are both disjoint sets
So, they have no element in common
So, A⋂B=Φ
So, A-B=A ⇒ A⋂B=Φ
Second part : Proving that A⋂B=Φ ⇒ A-B=A :-
A-B = A-(A⋂B)
Since A⋂B = Φ, so, A-B = A-Φ = A
So, A⋂B=Φ ⇒ A-B=A
So, A-B=A ⇔ A⋂B=Φ
Hence, proved
Let me know about any flaws in this proof, even the slightest, especially if the proof can be made shorter and if I have included anything unnecessary in it.
Thanks :)
Here's a proof for the second part: suppose that $A \cap B = \emptyset$. It is clear that $A - B \subseteq A$, so we show that $A \subseteq A - B$. Let $x$ be an arbitrary element of $A$.
So, $A \subseteq A-B$, which is to say that $A - B = A$ as was desired.