The problem has confused me for like half hour.
An integer is odd if it can be written as $d = 2m+1$. Use induction to prove that the ${d^n} = 1 \pmod2$
by induction, the basecase is pretty simple , let $n = 0$ then ${d^0}=1 \pmod2$ is correct. But I stucked in the I.H and inductive steps.
Any hints please?
Thank you in advance!
So you assume true up to an arbitrary integer $k$ (the Inductive Hypothesis), then prove true for the $k+1$ case.
So consider $d^{k} \equiv 1 \pmod 2$. So what happens when you multiply both sides by $d?$ You get $d^{k} * d \equiv d \pmod 2$. As $d$ is odd by the Inductive Hypothesis, we get that $d^{k+1}$ is also odd.
Alternatively, you can look at this combinatorially as well. So
$$(2m+1)^{k} = (2m+1)(2m+1)...(2m+1) = \prod_{i=1}^{k} (2m+1)$$
By expanding, the last digit will always be $1$. And every other term will be multiplied by $2m$, which implies that every other term is even. We know the even numbers are closed under addition, we have an integer of the form
$$2x + 1 = \sum_{i=0}^{k} \binom{k}{i} (2m)^{i} * 1^{k-i}$$