Given $Y_1, Y_2,...Y_n$ are i.i.d random variable which follows a distribution of $N(\mu, \sigma^2)$, I'm trying to prove that $$E(Y_i \bar{Y}) = \frac{\sigma^2}{n}+\mu^2$$
Here's what I've tried: $$E(Y_i \bar{Y}) = E(Y_i \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n}Y_i )$$ $$ = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n}E(Y_i Y_i )$$ Since $E(Y_i^2) = Var(Y_i)+E(Y_i)^2 = \sigma^2 +\mu^2$ $$E(Y_i \bar{Y}) = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n}E(Y_i^2)$$ $$ = \frac{1}{n} n (\sigma^2 +\mu^2)$$ $$ = (\sigma^2 +\mu^2)$$ which does not prove it right. I am unsure of where i got this wrong. Can anyone help me with this? Thank you.
Here is the error in your argument caused by the choice of the index letter that is already used.
To be correct, \begin{align} E(Y_i \bar{Y}) = E(Y_i \frac{1}{n} \sum_{\color{blue}{j=1}}^{n}Y_\color{blue}{j} ) = E(\sum_{j=1}^{n} \frac{1}{n}Y_iY_j) =\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=1}^{n} E(Y_iY_j) \end{align}
If $i \neq j$, we have $E(Y_i Y_j)=E(Y_i)E(Y_j)=\mu^2$. If $i=j$, $E(Y_i^2)=Var(Y_i) + E(Y_i)^2=\sigma^2+\mu^2$
Thus \begin{align} E(Y_i \bar{Y}) = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=1}^{n} E(Y_iY_j)&=\frac{1}{n} \left( (n-1)\mu^2+\ \sigma^2 + \mu^2\right) \\ &=\frac{1}{n}(n\mu^2 + \sigma^2)=\mu^2 + \frac{1}{n}\sigma^2 \end{align}