In the next proof we avail ourselves of the next lemma:
For all sets A and B, ( A ∪ B ) - B = A.
Proof:
Let A and B be arbitrary sets and let x ∈ ( A ∪ B ) - B.
x ∈ ( A ∪ B ) - B ⇔ x ∈ ( A ∪ B ) ∧ x ∉ B ⇔ ( x ∈ A ∨ x ∈ B ) ∧ x ∉ B ⇔ ( x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B ) ∨ ( x ∈ B ∨ x ∉ B)
For p ∧ ~ p ≡ F and p ∧ q ⇒ p where p and q are prepositions,
( x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B ) ∨ ( x ∈ B ∨ x ∉ B ) ⇔ x ∈ A ∨ F
By modus tollendo ponens,
x ∈ A ∨ F ⇔ x ∈ A
So then,
x ∈ ( A ∪ B ) - B ⇔ x ∈ A
And
( A ∪ B ) - B = A
Therefore, the statement for all sets A and B, A ∩ B = ∅ implies ( A ∪ B ) - B = A is true trivially.
Is this proof right?
Consider $$B \subset A, B \ne \emptyset, A \setminus B = C \ne \emptyset$$ Then, because B is non empty $$A \cup B = A \ne A \setminus B$$