Prove that $\frac{1}{n}\sum\limits^n_{i=1}(X_i-\overline{X})^2=\overline{X^2}-\overline{X}^{\ 2}$ where $\overline{X}=\frac{1}{n}\sum\limits^n_{i=1}X_i$ and $\overline{X^2}=\frac{1}{n}\sum\limits^n_{i=1}X_i^2$
From the left, I can see that $$\frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{i=1}(X_i-\overline{X})^2=\frac{(X_1-\overline{X})^2+\cdots+(X_n-\overline{X})^2}{n} = \frac{(X_1-\frac{X_1+\cdots+X_n}{n})^2+\cdots+(X_n-\frac{X_1+\cdots+X_n}{n})^2}{n} = \cdots$$
I don't see how we can get to the right. Any suggestions?
Observe \begin{align} \frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{i=1}(X_i-\bar X)^2 =&\ \frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{i=1} (X_i^2-2\bar XX_i +\bar X^2)\\ =&\ \frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{i=1}X_i^2 -2\bar X \frac{1}{n}\left(\sum^n_{i=1}X_i\right)+\bar X^2 \\ =&\ \overline{X^2}-2\bar X^2+\bar X^2 = \overline{X^2}-\bar X^2. \end{align}