This's an example:
For $u(z_1,z_1,\ldots,z_n)=\log(\max(\left | z_1 \right |,\left | z_2 \right |,\ldots,\left | z_n \right |))$, where $z=(z_1,z_1,\ldots,z_n) \in \Omega=\mathbb{C}^n \setminus\{0\} $. Prove that $u \in MPSH(\Omega)$.
And here's the solution in my textbook:
$\bullet$ Suppose that $v \in PSH(\Omega)$, $G \subset \subset \Omega$ and $v \le u$ on $\partial G$. For all $z \in G$, we consider an open set $A=\{t \in \mathbb{C}: tz \in G\}$ in $\mathbb{C}$.
We have $u(tz)$ and $v(tz)=\log\left | t \right |+\log(\max(\left | z_1 \right |,\left | z_2 \right |,\ldots,\left | z_n \right |)) \in PSH(\Omega), \forall z=(z_1,z_1,\ldots,z_n) $.
Moreover, $\partial A \subset \partial G$. Hence, $v(tz)|_{\partial A} \le u(tz)|_{\partial A}$.
Because $u$ be a harmonic then $v(tz)|_{A} \le u(tz)|_{A}$.
Therefore, $v(z) \le u(z)$ in $G$.////
But I don't understand the solution above. Ex Why we have $\partial A \subset \partial G$? Why $v(tz)|_{\partial A} \le u(tz)|_{\partial A}$?
Can anyone help me (explain clearly)! Thanks.
The statement $\partial A \subset \partial G$ makes no sense. ($A \subset \mathbb{C}$ but $G \subset \mathbb{C}^n$). But if $z \in G$ is fixed and $t\in\partial A$, then $tz \in \partial G$, which is probably what is meant.
By assumption, $v \le u$ on $\partial G$, so $v(tz) \le u(tz)$ for $t \in \partial A$. Finally $t \mapsto v(tz)$ is subharmonic and $t \mapsto u(tz) = \log|t| + \log\{\max|z_1|,\ldots,|z_n|\}$ is harmonic on $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$. By definition of subharmonicity, $v(tz) \le u(tz)$ for $t \in A$. In particular, $1 \in A$, so $v(z) \le u(z)$. But since $z \in G$ was arbitrary, $v \le u$ on $G$, showing that $u$ is indeed maximal.