I was wondering how to prove that $$n! \geq n^{\frac{n}{2}}\quad\forall n \geq 1$$ without analytic methods that relies on asympotic comparison or use of logarithms/exponentials.
Trying by induction I was stuck immediately after the induction hypothesis because I was unable to give an estimate of the following :
$$(n+1)! = n!(n+1) \geq n^{\frac{n}{2}}(n+1)$$
Is there anything I'm missing ? Any help of tip would be appreciated, as well as other methods that don't rely on seeing the inequality as an analysis task,
I'm seeking for ''arithmetic'' or ''algebraic'' demonstrations.
For $n \ge k\ge 1$, note that *$$k(n-k+1)-n=(n-k)(k-1) \ge 0 \implies k(n-k+1) \ge n~~~(*)$$ Next, we write $$n!=1 \cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot 4 \cdots k\cdots n ~~~(1)$$ and $$n!=n\cdot (n-1)\cdot (n-2)\cdot (n-3)\cdots (n-k+1)\cdots 1 ~~~(2).$$ Multiplying (1) and (2) pairwise as $$(n!)^2=(1\cdot n)\cdot(2\cdot (n-1))\cdot (3\cdot (n-2))\cdot (4 \cdot (n-4))\cdots (k(n-k+1))\cdots (n\cdot 1)$$ Fo from $(*)$, it follows that $$(n!)^2 \ge n^n.$$