Let $a$, $b$ and $c$ be non-negative numbers such that $ab+ac+bc\neq0$. Prove that: $$ \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2a^2+5ab+2b^2}}+\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2b^2+5bc+2c^2}}+\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2c^2+5ca+2a^2}} \geq\sqrt{\frac{3}{ab+ac+bc}}.$$
I solved this problem by Hölder: $$\left(\sum_{cyc}\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2a^2+5ab+2b^2}}\right)^2\sum_{cyc}\frac{(a+b)^3}{(2a^2+5ab+2b^2)^2}\geq\left(\sum_{cyc}\frac{a+b}{2a^2+5ab+2b^2}\right)^3$$ and it remains to prove that $$(ab+ac+bc)\left(\sum_{cyc}\frac{a+b}{2a^2+5ab+2b^2}\right)^3\geq3\sum_{cyc}\frac{(a+b)^3}{(2a^2+5ab+2b^2)^2},$$ which is true by BW and by using computer.
In this topic https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h542992 there is a proof (from gxggs), but it's very very complicated.
I found another way, a smooth enough, but it's still a very hard solution.
I am looking for a nice proof by hand, for which there is a possibility to find this proof during a competition.
Thank you!
Remark: I give a proof using the so-called isolated fudging.
It suffices to prove that $$\frac{\sqrt{\frac{ab + bc + ca}{3}}}{\sqrt{2a^2 + 5ab + 2b^2}}\ge \frac{8c^2 + 9(a + b)c + 8ab}{8(a^2 + b^2 + c^2) + 26(ab + bc + ca)}. \tag{1}$$ Note: Taking cyclic sum on (1), we get the desired inequality.
If $c = 0$, it is easy.
If $c > 0$, WLOG, assume that $c = 1$. Let $p = a + b, ~ q = ab$. Then $0 \le q \le p^2/4$. It suffices to prove that $$\frac{\sqrt{(q + p)/3}}{\sqrt{2(p^2 - 2q) + 5q}} \ge \frac{8 + 9p + 8q}{8(p^2 - 2q + 1) + 26(q + p)}.$$ Squaring both sides, it suffices to prove that \begin{align*} &-92\,{q}^{3}+ \left( -224\,{p}^{2}+188\,p-224 \right) {q}^{2}+ \left( 64\,{p}^{4}-288\,{p}^{3}+313\,{p}^{2}+144\,p-128 \right) q \\ &\quad +64\,{p}^{5} -70\,{p}^{4}-60\,{p}^{3}+32\,{p}^{2}+64\,p \ge 0. \end{align*} Denote LHS by $f(q)$. We have $f''(q) = - 448p^2 + 376p - 448 - 552q$. So, we have $f''(q) < 0$ on $q \ge 0$. So, $f(q)$ is concave on $q \ge 0$. Also, we have $f(0) = 64p^5 - 70p^4 - 60p^3 + 32p^2 + 64p \ge 0$ and $f(p^2/4) = \frac{1}{16}\,p \left( 9\,{p}^{3}+96\,{p}^{2}+256\,p+256 \right) \left( p-2 \right) ^{2} \ge 0$. Thus, $f(q) \ge 0$ for all $q\in [0, p^2/4]$.
We are done.