Let $\left(\dfrac{a}{p}\right)$ denote the Legendre symbol and $p \geq 3$ a prime number and $A$ an integer such that $p \nmid A$. Prove that $$\sum_{X=0}^{p-1} \left(\dfrac{X^{2}+A}{p}\right)=-1 .$$
I wasn't sure how to manipulate this sum. Maybe if we show that $\left(\dfrac{X^{2}+A}{p}\right)$ can't be a quadratic residue for more than some amount of values it will help.
Fix an odd prime natural number $p$. Let $$S_p(A):=\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p}\,\left(\frac{x^2+A}{p}\right)$$ for all $A\in\mathbb{F}_p^\times$, where $\mathbb{F}_p^\times$ is the group $\mathbb{F}_p\setminus\{0\}$ of units modulo $p$. Note that $$ \begin{align} S_p(A) &=\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)+\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p^\times}\,\left(\frac{x^2+A}{p}\right)=\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)+\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}}\,\left(\frac{1+Ax^2}{p}\right)\left(\frac{x^{-2}}{p}\right) \\ &=\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)+\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}}\,\left(\frac{1+Ax^2}{p}\right)=\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)\,\left(1+\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}}\,\left(\frac{x^2+A^{-1}}{p}\right)\right) \\ &=\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)\left(1-\left(\frac{A^{-1}}{p}\right)+\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p}\,\left(\frac{x^2+A^{-1}}{p}\right)\right)=\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)-1+\left(\frac{A}{p}\right)\,S_p\left(A^{-1}\right)\,. \end{align}$$ If $\left(\dfrac{A}{p}\right)=-1$, then we have $$S_p(A)+S_p\left(A^{-1}\right)=-2\,.\tag{1}$$
From the claim in this answer, we have $$-1=-\left(\frac{1}{p}\right)=\sum_{y\in\mathbb{F}_p}\,\left(\frac{y(y+A)}{p}\right)=\frac{1}{2}\,\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}}\,\left(\frac{x^2+A}{p}\right)+\frac{1}{2}\,\sum_{x\in\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}}\,\left(\frac{x^2+Au}{p}\right)\,,$$ where $u$ is an arbitrary quadratic nonresidue modulo $p$. Hence, $$S_p(A)+S_p(Au)=-2\,.\tag{2}$$
If $\left(\dfrac{A}{p}\right)=-1$, then $(2)$ with $u:=A^{-1}$ yields $$S_p(A)+S_p(1)=-2\,.\tag{3}$$ Comparing $(3)$ with $(1)$, we have $S_p\left(A^{-1}\right)=S_p(1)$. However, this is true for all $A$ with $\left(\dfrac{A}{p}\right)=-1$, whence $S_p(A)=S_p(1)$. Consequently, $S_p(A)=-1$.
Now, if $\left(\dfrac{A}{p}\right)=+1$, then we know from the paragraph above that $S_p(Au)=-1$. Ergo, $S_p(A)=-1$ as well.