Prove the identity $$ \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (-1)^{k} \binom{n}{k} (n-k) \frac{(a+k-2)!}{(a+k-n)!}=0 $$
I want to reduce $$ \frac{(a+k-2)!}{(a+k-n)!}=(2-n)\binom{a+k-n}{a+k-2}^{-1}=(2-n) (a+k-2) \int_0^1 z^{a+k-2}(1-z)^{2-n} dz, $$ and then try integrate it but the binomial coefficient $$ \binom{a+k-n}{a+k-2}=\frac{(a+k-n)!}{(2-n)! (a+k-2)!}, $$ is undefined for $n>2$ however the sum seems correct for any $n.$
Any ideas?
Comment:
In (1) we set the upper limit of the sum to $n$ (i.e. adding zero) and change the order of summation by $k\to n-k$.
In (2) we apply the binomial identity $\binom{p}{q}=\frac{p}{q}\binom{p-1}{q-1}$ and use binomial coefficients.
In (3) we shift the index to start with $k=0$.
In (4) we apply the binomial identity $\binom{-p}{q}=\binom{p+q-1}{q}(-1)^{q}$.
In (5) we use the coefficient of operator $[z^p]$ to denote the coefficient of a series. This way we can write $[z^p](1+z)^q=\binom{q}{p}$.
In (6) we use the linearity of the coefficient of operator and apply the rule $[z^{p-q}]A(z)=[z^p]z^qA(z)$.
In (7) we apply the binomial theorem.