Prove that for all integers $j,k,n, k \ge 0$, we have
$$ \sum\limits_{i=0}^n ({-1})^{n-i} \binom {n}{i} \binom {ki}{j} = \begin{cases} 0, & \text{if } 0 \le j < n; \\ k^n, & \text{if } j = n. \end{cases} $$
The alternating sum suggests use of inclusion-exclusion principle, but I am unable to setup a situation. The sum becomes 0 which is strange for me. How do you incorporate that. Using inclusion -exclusion for counting something like surjective functions always we count something.
I am trying to learn combinatorics, so would prefer a combinatorial argument.
Consider $n$ groups of $k$ objects. The quantity ${n\choose i}{ki\choose j}$ represents the number of ways to choose $i$ of the groups, then select $j$ objects from the chosen groups. By inclusion-exclusion, the left hand side is the number of ways to choose $j$ objects total from a collection of $n$ groups of $k$ objects, such that each group has at least one object selected from it. It is not hard to see the right hand side counts the same thing.