$f(n) = n + (\log n)^{2} , g(n) = n + \log(n^{2} ).$
Now so far I've done $g(n) = n+ 2\log(n)$
and then I think since its the same change to both, I can remove $n$.
leaving me with $f(n) = (\log n)^{2}$ and $g(n) = 2\log(n)$ now if I do $f(n)/g(n)$ I get
$((\log n)^{2}) / (2\log n)$
and since the numerator is growing exponentially and the bottom is growing linearly? As we approach positive infinity the function approaches positive infinity. Thus $f(n)$ is $\omega$ of $g(n)$?
I don't know if this proof is done right, if its what is a better alternative? I am still new to this and learning!
$\frac {f(n)} {g(n)}=\frac {n+(\log\, n)^{2}}{ n+2\log\, n}=\frac {1+(\log\, n)^{2}/n} { 1+2(\log\, n)/n} \to 1$