Let $A,B,C$ be sets. Identify a condition such that $A \cap C = B \cap C$ together with your condition implies $A=B$. Prove this implication. Show that your condition is necessary by finding an example where $A \cap C = B \cap C$, but $ A \neq B$
Edit: I've read the wrong proposition/definition. UGH! The question was probably about having sets being equal, not empty.
Now, suppose that $ A \neq B$... that would mean that $A$ isn't equal to $B$. So they are different sets, but $A \cap C = B \cap C$ are equal sets.
I'm lost on this. I need to find a condition, but where do I even start? These are my thoughts about the question so far.
We need to find a condition for $A \cap C = B \cap C$.
Proposition 3.1.12 states that if $A$ and $B$ are both empty sets, then $A =B$.
So $A \cap C$ and $B \cap C$ are both empty sets which is why $A \cap C = B \cap C$.
It seems that there are empty sets everywhere because proposition 3.1.12 claims that if $A$ and $B$ are empty set, then $A =B$. It's like there aren't any elements at all. There's nothing.
We need to find a condition that demonstrates that $A \cap C = B \cap C$ which are empty sets, but $A \neq B$ means that there are elements in $A$ and $B$.
How is this even possible?
$A \cap C$ by definition 3.2.1 is $[x: x: \in A \land x \in C]$
x belongs in A and x belongs in C.
$B \cap C$ by definition 3.2.1 is $[x: x: \in B \land x \in C]$
x belongs in B and x belongs in C
The only way I could think of is a contradiction to this... but that would mean that $A = B$ ... there are no elements in A and B, but $A \cap C \neq B \cap C$ means that there are elements. There may not be elements in A and B, but there are elements in C.
HINT: What happens if both $A=A\cap C$ and $B=B\cap C$? (Note that this generalizes the case of both $A$ and $B$ being empty.)