I'm exploring a probabilistic analysis problem where I have variables (or, probabilities) $x_1,\ldots, x_n \in (0,1)$ in the range $(0,1)$ satisfying $\sum^n_{i=1} x_i \in (0,1)$. I aim to prove the inequality: $$\frac{1-\prod^{k+1}_{i = 1} (1-x_i)}{\sum^{k+1}_{i=1} x_i} \leq \frac{1-\prod^{k}_{i = 1} (1-x_i)}{\sum^k_{i=1} x_i}.$$ For all $k \in \{1,2,\ldots,n-1\}$. This inequality essentially suggests that augmenting the denominator by adding $x_{k+1}$ to the denominator while multiplying the second term in the nominator by $(1-x_{k+1})$ overall can only decrease the overall expression.
I've attempted to employ the arithmetic/geometric mean inequality, but I haven't succeeded so far. Can anyone provide insights or alternative approaches that could help in proving this inequality?
For ease of notation / laziness, let $ S_K = \sum_{i=1}^{K} x_i, P_K = \prod_{i=1}^K (1 - x_i) , $.