I was given this problem:
Show if $a>1$ and $n>1$ ($n$ and $a$ are integers) then, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}a^{\frac{1}{n}}=1.$$
The obvious solution is the following:
Take the logarithm in base $a$ of $a^{\frac{1}{n}}$ and logarithm in base $a$ of 1 and you have,
$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}=0$.
Which is clearly true. Therefore it is equal to $1$.
But the questions ask if you can prove this without logarithms, any solutions?
The basic idea of an "elementary" proof, which I have from Kenneth A. Ross, Elementary Analysis: The Theory of Calculus, is that it behooves us to consider the quantity $s_n := a^{1/n} - 1$, and show that this tends to zero. [Recommendation: See if this hint is enough!]
I will leave you to prove the lemma that $s_n > 0$ for all $n \geq 1$, i.e., if $a > 1$, then $a^{1/n} > 1$ [Proof by contrapositive is the easiest.]
Proof (essentially, Ross): If $s_n = a^{1/n} - 1$, then $a^{1/n} = 1 + s_n$. Raise both sides to the $n$th power and use the binomial formula, and the positivity of $s_n$: For $n \geq 3$,
\begin{align} a &= (a^{1/n})^n && = (1 + s_n)^{n}\\ &&& = \sum_{k = 0}^n \binom{n}{k} s_n^k\\ &&& \geq 1 + n s_n. \end{align}
Thus, $\displaystyle s_n \leq \frac{a-1}{n}$. Use the Squeeze Theorem.
[I seem to remember that an argument in this direction works even for $0 < a < 1$, but since $s_n$ is negative in this case (though still $> -1$) you have to use the $k = 2$ term of the binomial series and watch your error bounds a little more.]