Proving $(p \land \lnot q) \rightarrow p$ is a tautology using logical equivalences

Question

I'm very new to discrete math and propositional calculus. I keep getting lost trying to prove the following propositional formula is a tautology using equivalencies.

$$(p \land \lnot q) \rightarrow p$$

Edit: I solved it; see my answer below.

Answer 1

Figured it out with amWhy's help.

$(p \land \lnot q) \rightarrow p \equiv \lnot (p \land \lnot q) \lor p $,

As such, $\lnot (p \land \lnot q) \lor p$

Then, we use DeMorgan's law to get $(\lnot p \lor q) \lor p$,

Then, using association, $q \lor (\lnot p \lor p) $,

$q \lor T $,

T

Therefore, $(p \land \lnot q) \rightarrow p$ is a Tautology.