We say an infinite set $S$ is closed under $\wedge$ if for all $a,b$ $\in S$ so $a\wedge b \in S$.
I need to prove that if S is closed under $\wedge$ and for all $a \in S$ we know is that $a$ is satisfied, So $S$ is satisfied.
I'm got confused about how to prove the question -
either by induction and showing that each finite subset of $S$ is satisfied or by direct proof using the fact that $S$ is closed under $\wedge$.