I just post a question to check if my proof to the following is true :
Let $f$ and $g$ be two differentiable functions on $E=[a,b],$ then
if $f'(t)=g'(t)$ and $f(a)=g(a)$ then $f=g, \forall t \in E$
(1)we admit that $f$ and $g$ are differentiable, thus they are continuous thus integrable.
(2) we also admit that $f'(t)=g'(t) \implies \int_a^b f'(t) dt =\int^b_a g'(t) dt $
(2) We'll admit the fundamental theorem of calculus
then
let $x \in E$
$$\int_a^x f'(t) dt =f(x)-f(a)$$
$$\int_a^x g'(t) dt=g(x)-g(a)$$
so
$$f(x)-f(a)=g(x)-f(a)$$
i.e.
$$f(x)=g(x), \forall x \in E$$
QED
Is there any way to prove this using only the derivate (and no integral) ?
Thanks
TMD
Let $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ for $x\in[a,b]$.
Let $x\in (a,b]$. By Mean Value Theorem, there exists $\zeta\in(a,x)$ such that
$$\frac{h(x)-h(a)}{x-a}=f'(\zeta)=0$$
So, $h(x)=h(a)=0$ and hence $f(x)=g(x)$.