I would like some help understanding one of the equalities in the following proof:
Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ be a differentiable function. If $\alpha^1,\cdots ,\alpha^k$ are $1$-forms in $\mathbb{R}^m$, prove that $f^*(\alpha^1\wedge\cdots \wedge\alpha^k)=f^*(\alpha^1)\wedge\cdots \wedge f^*(\alpha^k)$
Proof:
\begin{align}f^*(\alpha^1\wedge\cdots \wedge\alpha^k)(v_1,\cdots ,v_k)&=(\alpha^1\wedge\cdots \wedge \alpha^k)(df(v_1),\cdots ,df(v_k))\\&=\det(\alpha^i(df(v_j))\\&=\det(f^*\alpha^i(v_j))\\ &=f^*(\alpha^1)\wedge\cdots \wedge f^*(\alpha^k)(v_1,\cdots ,v_k) \end{align}
My question is, why is the second equality true. I know that the wedge product can be defined using determinants, but if we are dealing with differentials what does $\alpha^i(df(v_j))$ actually mean and why would we write out that way?
The definition I am given for the wedge product is:
$$\alpha^1\wedge\cdots \wedge \alpha^k=\sum_{i_1<...<i_k}^{}\frac{\partial (\alpha^1,\cdots,\alpha^k)}{\partial(e^{i^1},\cdots,e^{i_k})}e^{i_1}\wedge\cdots\wedge e^{i_k}$$
So as always in differential geometry, you have to keep track of what type your objects are.
Here notice that $df$ is a linear function $\mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ so it spits vectors of $\mathbb{R}^m$.
On the other hand $\alpha^i$ is a 1-forms so it takes a vector in $\mathbb{R}^m$ as argument. Thus it shoud be clear (at least formally) what $\alpha^i(df(v_j))$ means.
You can show (by induction for example, knowing that $(\alpha \wedge \beta) (V_1,V_2)=\alpha(V_1)\beta(V_2)-\alpha(V_2)\beta(V_1)$ for any vectors, that for any $V_1, \ldots,V_k$ in $\mathbb{R}^m$, $$\alpha^1 \wedge \ldots \wedge \alpha^k (V_1, \ldots ,V_k)=det(\alpha^i(V_j)).$$
(To me this was pretty much the definition of wedge products).
Hope this was helpful somehow.