In an attempt to generalize solutions with discontinuities to a PDE, we want to consider distributions.
We have a continuous function $g\in C(Y)$ and a smooth function $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow Y,\ f$ is $C^\infty$ , we want to generalize the classical continuous function $g\circ f: \mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ to a distribution.
We are able to generalize $g$ as a distribution $u\in \mathscr{D}'(Y)$ but we want a distribution $U\in \mathscr{D}'(\mathbb{R}^n)$ that generalize $g\circ f$ , by pulling back : $U= u\circ f$ .
I don't quite understand how am I allowed to do that ? Here is what I tried :
If $\phi$ is a test function on $\mathbb{R}^n$ then we can map it to the test function $T(\phi)$ on $Y$ that is defined by $$T(\phi) (y)= \int_{f^{-1}\big(\{y\}\big)}\phi(x)dx \quad, \text{ for all } y\in Y$$
Here $T$ is a well defined operator. Is this a well known construction ?
Then we can consider $U(\phi)= u(T(\phi))= u\circ T(\phi)$ .
But does $U$ generelize $g\circ f$ ?
Attendum :
The space $Y$ is the real line $\mathbb{R}$ and my $f$ is not even injective, $f: \mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is rather a projection and has the form $f(x)= x\cdot v$ where $v$ is a fixed vector of $\mathbb{R}^n$ .
There is a simple formula for the case where the distribution $g$ is of finite order and $f$ is a diffeomorphism. The first condition means that $f$ has the form $D^nG$ (distributional derivative) for a continuous $G$ and integer $n$. The required distribution is then $\left(\frac 1{f‘}D\right)^n (G\circ f)$. This suffices for most practical situations, e.g., where $g$ is the Dirac distribution, and can be generalised to more general ones using standard localisation methods („recollement des morceaux“).