I have encountered a question and breaking my head on it,
Prove or disprove: For every two decision problems S_1,S_2∉{∅,{0,1}^*} if there is a karp reduction from S_1 to S_2 so there is a karp reduction from S_2 to S_1
Thanks for the helpers
2026-04-02 03:00:05.1775098805
Question on the karp reduction (many-one reduction)
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