I just wondering radius of convergence following series $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}n! x^{n!} \\ $$ My 1st attempt is 'root test' $$ \sqrt[n!]{|a_{n!} |} =\sqrt[n!]{|n! |} =\sqrt[t]{t} \rightarrow 1 $$ So, I thoungt radius of convergence is '1'
Is this right answer?
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And 2nd question!!
My friend solve this problem wiht "ratio test"
He said
$$ |\frac{(n+1)!x^{(n+1)!}}{n!x^{n!}}| \le 1 \implies |(n+1)x^{n \cdot n!}|\le1 \implies |x|\le|\frac{1}{n+1}|^{\frac{1}{n\cdot n!}} \rightarrow1 $$
So, radius of convergence is '1'
Is this right answer?
$$ $$ I've solved problem of this type through $$ |\frac{a_{n+1}x^{n+1}}{a_n x^n}|\le1 $$ So, I am uncertain for my friend's solution.
BECAUSE for the series, $$ a_2=0, a_3=0, a_k=0 ( k \not=n!) $$
thus there will be $$ \frac{0}{0} $$
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Please give me some advice.
Thanks in advance.
The radius of convergence is $1$, since the sum converges for $x\in(-1,1)$, sometimes both approaches (ratio and root) will work, so it is fine that there are two methods.
Your uncertainty with $\frac{0}{0}$ is okay, because if we we had some series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty x_n$, and we knew for certain terms, where $x_n=0$, say for a set $S\subset\Bbb N$, then we would just rewrite the series as:
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty x_n=\sum_{n\in \Bbb N\setminus S}x_n$, and we would assess the remaining sequence.
Example $x_n=1/n^2$ for $n$ odd, and $x_n=0$ for $n$ even, we would just have:
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty x_n=\sum_{n\in \Bbb N\setminus 2\Bbb N}^\infty x_n$