$Y_1, Y_2, Y_3,...,Y_n$ are independent and identically distributed random variables and they have uniform distribution on ${\{1,...,m\}}$.
Prove that for $n\le k\le mn$, we have
$$P(Y_1+Y_2+Y_3+...+Y_n=k)=\frac 1 {m^n} \sum_{0\le i \le(k-n)/m} (-1)^i \binom{n}{i} \binom{k-mi-1}{n-1}$$
So I think this is related to the binomial formula with $$\{1+x\}^a=\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}\binom{a}{i}x^i$$ where $|a| \lt 1$. How would I transform this formula to the given identity in the question?
This can be proven by principle of inclusion and exclusion.
Firstly, consider number of solution to $Y_1+Y_2+Y_3+...+Y_n=k$ with no constraint on upper bound, but $Y_i\ge 1$ for all $i=1,2,3,...,n$
Substitute in the variable that $Z_i=Y_i-1$, so now $Z_i\ge 0$
Equation becomes $Z_1+Z_2+...+Z_n=k-n$, number of its non-negative solutions is given by Balls in Urns, which is $ {(k-n)+n-1}\choose{n-1}$= $ {k-1}\choose{n-1}$, this gives the first term in the sum when $i=0$.
Then as we know that each of the random variable have the upper bound of $m$,
Consider the case when (at least) $i$ of the random variables exceed $m$, say $Y_1,Y_2,..,Y_i$. There are ${n}\choose{i}$ ways to choose them.
With substitution that $Z_j=Y_j-(m+1)$ when $j=1,2,...,i$,
$Z_q=Y_q-1$ when $q=(i+1),...,n$
Then $Y_1+Y_2+Y_3+...+Y_n=k \longrightarrow Z_1+Z_2+...+Z_n=k-(m+1)\cdot i -(n-i)=k-mi-n$
Again the number of solutions to this is ${(k-mi-n)+n-1}\choose{n-1}$=${k-mi-1}\choose{n-1}$, this corresponds to the $i$ th term in the sum.
So principle of inclusion & exclusion gives the sum.