The correct answer is apparently $0$ however I end up with $1$. I do the following:
$$a_{n+1} = \frac{(n+1)-2}{((n+1)+1)!} = \frac{n-1}{(n+2)!}$$
$$ \begin{split} \lim_{n \to \infty} \left|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\right| &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left|\frac{n-1}{(n+2)(n!)} \times \frac{(n+1)(n!)}{n-2}\right| \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left|\frac{(n-1)(n+1)}{(n+2)(n-2)}\right| \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \left|\frac{n^2-1}{n^2-2}\right| \\ &= \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n^2}{n^2} \\ &= 1 \end{split} $$
I assumed as $n$ approaches $\infty$ the '$-1$' and '$-2$' become meaningless, however I'm pretty certain that is now incorrect unless I've made an error earlier on.
Note that $(n+2)! = ((n+1)!)(n+2)$
I think that is the mistake.
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n-1}{(n+1)!(n+2)} \frac{(n+1)!}{n-2}=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n-1}{(n+2)(n-2)}=0$$