I came across the implication $$x < y \Rightarrow x^n < y^n$$ $$x,y>0, n\in Z^+$$ in a textbook and came up with the following proof.
Proof Since $x<y$ the following chain of inequalities holds. $x^n<x^{n-1}y < x^{n-2}y^2 <...<y^n$
My question now relates to the “solidity” of this proof. I get the feeling that it is a bit vague in its reasoning, yet I cannot see that it isn’t correct... I’m quite new to proving things and can’t always see the difference between intuitive reasoning and rigorous reasoning.
Is my reasoning solid? If not, what is it lacking?
What's lacking is explicit induction. It's an "et cetera" argument. It's not wrong, but it's not $100\%$ rigorous. It's close enough that making it rigorous is easy though, if you know how to do induction.