Using the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, it's easy to prove this proposition:
Proposition. Every divisor of $mn$ can be written as the product of a divisor of $m$ to a divisor of $n$.
My question: How heavily does the proposition rely on the fundamental theorem of arithmetic? Is there anyway to prove it with this theorem or one of its equivalents? What happens in rings which prime factorization is not unique?
A counterexample is $R = Z[\sqrt{-5}]$. The ring $R$ is a Dedekind domain (which is certainly among the luckier things that can happen to you if you are not a unique factorization domain. In fact, there is even something like a unique factorization for ideals in them).
In R, we have $$6 = 2 \cdot 3 = (1-\sqrt{-5})(1+\sqrt{-5}).$$ Thus, $(1-\sqrt{-5})$ divides 6. But $(1-\sqrt{-5})$ neither divides 2 nor 3.
You can show this by using norms $$N(a+b\sqrt{-5}) = a^2+5b^2.$$ These are multiplicative in R, meaning that $ N(xy)=N(x)N(y)$ for $x,y\in R$. Thus, $x \mid z$ in $R$ implies $N(x) \mid N(y)$ in $\Bbb Z$. But $N(1-\sqrt{-5}) = 1+5 = 6$ doesn't divide $N(2)=4$, nor does it divide $N(3)=9$.