If I have a smooth real valued function $f$ with a minimum at $x_M$ and the second derivative is
$$ f''(x_M) = 0 $$
does this mean that $f$ has to be a polynomial? If not can someone give an example?
If I have a smooth real valued function $f$ with a minimum at $x_M$ and the second derivative is
$$ f''(x_M) = 0 $$
does this mean that $f$ has to be a polynomial? If not can someone give an example?
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