I am working on the following question:
Let $p>3$ be a prime such that $p \not\equiv 1 \mod 3$. Show that $p$ is not represented by the binary quadratic equation $f(x, y) = x^2 + xy + y^2$.
I would appreciate any help.
I am working on the following question:
Let $p>3$ be a prime such that $p \not\equiv 1 \mod 3$. Show that $p$ is not represented by the binary quadratic equation $f(x, y) = x^2 + xy + y^2$.
I would appreciate any help.
On
Remember that you can just add up mods.
If $x \equiv 1 \bmod 3$ and $y \equiv 1 \bmod 3$, then $x^2 + xy + y^2 \equiv 0 \bmod 3$.
If $x \equiv 1 \bmod 3$ and $y \equiv 2 \bmod 3$, then $x^2 + xy + y^2 \equiv 1 \bmod 3$.
If $x \equiv 1 \bmod 3$ and $y \equiv 0 \bmod 3$, then $x^2 + xy + y^2 \equiv 1 \bmod 3$.
If $x \equiv 2 \bmod 3$ and $y \equiv 2 \bmod 3$, then $x^2 + xy + y^2 \equiv 0 \bmod 3$.
Obviously we needn't worry about both $x$ and $y$ satisfying $0 \mod 3$, and as for the other possibilities with $x$ and $y$ switched, we can ignore them "without any loss of generality."
Since $x^2 + xy + y^2 \equiv 2 \bmod 3$ is impossible, no $p \equiv 2 \bmod 3$ can be represented by it.
If $p > 3$ is prime and not $1 \bmod 3$, it must be $2 \bmod 3$.
On the other hand, $f(x, y) = (x - y)^2 + 3xy \equiv 0, 1 \pmod 3$ since a square must be $0$ or $1 \bmod 3$.